ISC2 CC Practice Exam
ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC)
The ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) exam validates foundational knowledge for an entry-level cybersecurity role. Its five domains are Security Principles (24%), Security Governance (17.3%), Identity and Access Management Concepts (20%), Networking and Cloud Security Concepts (21.3%) and Security Operations and Incident Response (17.3%), with foundational AI concepts integrated across all five. The exam has 100 to 125 items in two hours. This practice exam mirrors it with concept-level multiple choice and drag-and-drop questions, including AI-related scenarios.
Question bank updated : questions, answers, explanations and chapters.
Certification Overview
- Exam name: CC
- Vendor: ISC2
- Exam code: CC
- Duration: 120 minutes
- Total questions: about 100
- Official passing score: 700 out of 1,000 points (source)
- Our practice exam pass mark: 70%
Who Should Take This Exam?
IT Professional, Career Changer, College Student, Recent Graduate, Help Desk Technician, IT Support Specialist, Junior Security Analyst, Network Technician
Prerequisites
No work experience required. ISC2 designed CC for people starting a career in cybersecurity.
Topics Covered
- Security Principles
- Security Governance
- Identity and Access Management (IAM) Concepts
- Networking and Cloud Security Concepts
- Security Operations and Incident Response
Question Types
- Multiple Choice (Single Answer)
- Drag and Drop
CC Practice Questions
Our question bank contains 671+ practice questions for this certification. Sample questions from each exam chapter. Expand a question to see the answer choices. With a subscription, you get unlimited practice exams with randomised questions from our full question bank.
Security Principles
Payroll records are opened by an employee with no business need. Which principle of the CIA triad has been broken?
- A. Integrity
- B. Availability
- C. Non-repudiation
- D. Confidentiality Correct answer
Option D, Confidentiality, is correct because an employee with no business need viewing payroll records is unauthorized disclosure of information. Integrity concerns unauthorized changes, Availability concerns access to systems, and Non-repudiation concerns proof of who performed an action.
What is the term for requiring a password together with a code from a hardware token to sign in?
- A. Role-based access
- B. Multi-factor authentication Correct answer
- C. Federated identity
- D. Single sign-on
Option B, Multi-factor authentication, is correct because it combines two different factor types: something you know (a password) and something you have (a hardware token). Role-based access is an authorization model, and federated identity and single sign-on concern reusing one login across systems.
A vendor denies having sent a digitally signed purchase order. Which security property makes that denial difficult to sustain?
- A. Availability
- B. Authorization
- C. Non-repudiation Correct answer
- D. Integrity
Option C, Non-repudiation, is correct because a digital signature ties the message to the signer, so the sender cannot credibly deny sending it. Availability, Authorization and Integrity do not provide proof of origin that defeats a denial.
What term describes the potential for loss when a threat exploits a vulnerability?
- A. Asset
- B. Risk Correct answer
- C. Threat
- D. Vulnerability
Option B, Risk, is correct because risk is the potential for loss when a threat exploits a vulnerability. An asset is what is protected, a threat is the potential cause of harm, and a vulnerability is the weakness being exploited.
Security Governance
Which statement best describes the role of a security policy?
- A. It offers optional advice on good practice
- B. It states management's intent for protecting information Correct answer
- C. It lists the ordered steps for completing a task
- D. It sets minimum technical baselines for systems
Option B is correct because a policy is a high-level statement of management's intent and direction for protecting information. Option A describes a guideline, option C a procedure, and option D a standard.
Which type of document lists the ordered steps for carrying out a routine security task?
- A. Policy
- B. Procedure Correct answer
- C. Standard
- D. Guideline
Option B is correct because a procedure gives the ordered, step-by-step instructions for performing a routine task. A policy states intent, a standard sets mandatory requirements, and a guideline offers optional advice.
An online retailer that accepts card payments must follow security rules set by the card brands and enforced through its payment processor contract. What kind of requirement is this?
- A. A voluntary internal guideline
- B. A government agency regulation
- C. A criminal statute
- D. A contractual industry standard Correct answer
Option D is correct because card-brand rules (such as PCI DSS) are an industry standard that binds the retailer through its payment processor contract. They are not a government regulation or criminal statute, and they are not voluntary.
Which term describes the combination of the likelihood that a threat will exploit a vulnerability and the resulting impact?
- A. Risk Correct answer
- B. Vulnerability
- C. Control
- D. Threat
Option A is correct because risk is the combination of the likelihood that a threat exploits a vulnerability and the resulting impact. A threat, a vulnerability and a control are each only one element of, or a response to, that relationship.
Identity and Access Management (IAM) Concepts
After HR confirms a new hire, the IT team creates the user's account and assigns starting access. Which identity life cycle stage is this?
- A. Provisioning Correct answer
- B. Access recertification
- C. Deprovisioning
- D. Credential rotation
Option A is correct because creating the account and assigning starting access after HR confirms a hire is provisioning, the first stage of the identity life cycle. Access recertification reviews existing access, deprovisioning removes it, and credential rotation changes secrets.
What should happen to a resigning employee's account by the end of the last working day?
- A. Hand it to the manager for the replacement hire
- B. Reduce it to read-only access to the team's files
- C. Disable it and remove its access Correct answer
- D. Keep it active until the next access review
Option C is correct because a leaver's account should be disabled and its access removed promptly, by the end of the last working day. Handing it to a manager, keeping read-only access, or waiting for the next review all leave a live account for someone no longer employed.
Over several years an employee moves through three teams and keeps every permission from each earlier job. What is this buildup called?
- A. Privilege creep Correct answer
- B. Role explosion
- C. Privilege escalation
- D. Access aggregation
Option A is correct because accumulating permissions from earlier roles as someone changes jobs is privilege creep. Role explosion is too many roles, privilege escalation is gaining higher rights than granted, and access aggregation is combining access across systems.
A contractor's engagement is scheduled to end on a known date. How can the organization make sure the contractor's access stops on time?
- A. Remove idle accounts during the annual review
- B. Cut the account's permissions a little each month
- C. Set an expiration date when the account is created Correct answer
- D. Ask the contractor to report when the work is finished
Option C is correct because setting an expiration date at account creation makes access stop automatically on the known end date. Annual reviews, gradual permission cuts, or relying on the contractor to report in are late, partial or unreliable.
Networking and Cloud Security Concepts
Which OSI layer is responsible for routing packets between networks using IP addresses?
- A. Network Correct answer
- B. Session
- C. Transport
- D. Data Link
Option A is correct because the Network layer (Layer 3) handles logical IP addressing and routes packets between networks. Session manages dialogs between applications, Transport provides end-to-end delivery with ports, and Data Link moves frames within a single local segment using MAC addresses.
A browser connects to a bank's website over TLS. Which protocol and default port carry that session?
- A. DNS over TCP 53
- B. HTTP on TCP 8080
- C. HTTPS on TCP 443 Correct answer
- D. SSH on TCP 22
Option C is correct because HTTPS, which is HTTP carried over TLS, uses TCP port 443 by default. DNS uses port 53, plain HTTP alternates such as 8080 carry no TLS by default, and SSH on port 22 is a remote administration protocol, not web browsing.
An attacker sitting between a laptop and a public Wi-Fi access point relays and reads traffic that both ends believe is private. What type of attack is this?
- A. Credential stuffing
- B. On-path attack Correct answer
- C. Denial of service
- D. Cross-site scripting
Option B is correct because an on-path attack (formerly man-in-the-middle) places the attacker between two parties so they can relay and read traffic each side believes is private. Credential stuffing reuses leaked passwords, denial of service exhausts availability, and cross-site scripting injects script into web pages.
Which tool watches traffic on a network segment and alerts staff when it matches a known attack pattern, without blocking anything?
- A. Network intrusion detection system Correct answer
- B. Network intrusion prevention system
- C. Stateful firewall
- D. Reverse proxy
Option A is correct because a network intrusion detection system monitors traffic and alerts on known attack signatures without blocking it. An intrusion prevention system sits inline and can block, a stateful firewall enforces connection-based rules, and a reverse proxy fronts servers rather than alerting on attack patterns.
Security Operations and Incident Response
An organization labels documents Public, Internal, Confidential and Restricted. What is the main purpose of these labels?
- A. Recording which team wrote the document
- B. Defining how the data must be handled Correct answer
- C. Showing when the document was last reviewed
- D. Naming the encryption used on the file
Option B is correct because classification labels such as Public, Internal, Confidential and Restricted tell staff and systems how the data must be handled, stored, shared and protected. The other options describe authorship, review dates or encryption details, which are not what a classification label conveys.
Backup tapes holding customer records are being retired. Which action ensures the data cannot be recovered afterward?
- A. Perform a quick format of each tape
- B. Degauss or physically shred the tapes Correct answer
- C. Move the tapes to a locked storage room
- D. Delete the files and empty the recycle bin
Option B is correct because degaussing or physically shredding magnetic tapes destroys the data so it cannot be recovered. A quick format and deleting files leave recoverable data, and moving the tapes to a locked room only protects them physically without sanitizing anything.
A laptop holding sensitive files is stolen from a taxi. Which control would have kept the data unreadable to the thief?
- A. Full-disk encryption Correct answer
- B. A host-based firewall
- C. Transport Layer Security for web traffic
- D. Multifactor authentication on the VPN
Option A is correct because full-disk encryption keeps the contents of a stolen laptop unreadable without the key. A host firewall and TLS protect network traffic, and MFA on the VPN protects remote access, none of which stop someone reading the disk directly.
A regulation requires financial records to be kept for seven years, yet the storage team purges everything after three. Which requirement is being missed?
- A. Data minimization of stored records
- B. Meeting the required retention period Correct answer
- C. Data sanitization of expired records
- D. Data classification of financial records
Option B is correct because the regulation sets a seven-year retention period and purging at three years fails to meet it. Minimization, sanitization and classification are different data-handling concepts and do not describe keeping records for a mandated length of time.
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