Google Cloud Professional Cloud Security Engineer Practice Exam

Google Cloud Certified - Professional Cloud Security Engineer

The Google Cloud Professional Cloud Security Engineer exam validates the ability to design, implement and manage secure workloads and infrastructure on Google Cloud, from identity and the resource hierarchy to data protection, network defenses, threat monitoring and securing AI workloads. Its five sections are configuring access at about 25 percent, securing communications and establishing boundary protection at about 22 percent, ensuring data protection at about 23 percent, managing operations at about 19 percent, and supporting compliance requirements at about 11 percent. This practice exam mirrors that scope with multiple choice and multiple select scenarios.

Question bank updated : questions, answers, explanations and chapters.

Certification Overview

  • Exam name: Professional Cloud Security Engineer
  • Vendor: Google Cloud
  • Duration: 120 minutes
  • Total questions: about 60
  • Our practice exam pass mark: 70%

Who Should Take This Exam?

Cloud Security Engineer, Security Architect, Security Engineer, Cloud Engineer, Network Security Engineer, Identity and Access Engineer, DevSecOps Engineer, Compliance Engineer

Prerequisites

No formal prerequisite. Google recommends 3 or more years of industry experience, including more than 1 year designing and managing solutions using Google Cloud.

Topics Covered

  • Configuring access
  • Securing communications and establishing boundary protection
  • Ensuring data protection
  • Managing operations
  • Supporting compliance requirements

Question Types

  • Multiple Choice (Single Answer)
  • Multiple Choice (Multiple Answers)

Professional Cloud Security Engineer Practice Questions

Our question bank contains 749+ practice questions for this certification. Sample questions from each exam chapter. Expand a question to see the answer choices. With a subscription, you get unlimited practice exams with randomised questions from our full question bank.

Configuring access

Your company has just verified its domain in Cloud Identity. Some employees had already registered consumer Google Accounts with their corporate email addresses. You want those accounts brought under the organization's administrative control while employees keep their existing data. What should you do?
  • A. Delete the consumer accounts, then create Cloud Identity users with the same addresses
  • B. Send invitations from the transfer tool for unmanaged users in the Admin console Correct answer
  • C. Reset each password in the Admin console and set the corporate address as recovery email
  • D. Add the accounts to a Google Group in the domain as external members

Option B is correct because the Admin console's transfer tool for unmanaged users sends invitations that, once accepted, convert the existing consumer accounts into managed accounts under the organization while the users keep their data. Option A destroys the data the employees want to keep, option C is not possible for accounts the organization does not yet control, and option D only makes the accounts external group members without bringing them under administrative control.

A legacy archiving integration signs in with a Cloud Identity account that has no counterpart in Active Directory. After Google Cloud Directory Sync was enabled, the account was suspended during the first sync and the integration stopped. You must keep the account and keep GCDS running on its schedule. What should you configure?
  • A. Add an exclusion rule for the account's address in the GCDS configuration Correct answer
  • B. Run GCDS in simulation mode and review the proposed suspensions before each sync
  • C. Raise the user deletion limit in the GCDS configuration above the current value
  • D. Assign the account a delegated admin role so that GCDS leaves administrators untouched

Option A is correct because GCDS suspends accounts that exist in Cloud Identity but not in the LDAP source, and an exclusion rule for that address tells GCDS to leave the account alone while syncing continues on schedule. Option B only adds a manual review step before each sync, option C changes a safety limit rather than protecting the account, and option D is wrong because GCDS does not skip accounts based on delegated admin roles.

An organization has set up a third-party SAML identity provider for Cloud Identity. Employees in the Staff organizational unit must sign in through the provider. Contractors in the Partners organizational unit have no accounts there and must keep signing in directly with their Google credentials. How should you configure single sign-on?
  • A. Assign the SSO profile to the root organizational unit and move the contractors' accounts to a Google Group
  • B. Assign the SSO profile to the Staff organizational unit and leave Partners with no SSO profile Correct answer
  • C. Assign the SSO profile to the root organizational unit and set a shorter session length for Partners
  • D. Assign the SSO profile to the root organizational unit and enforce security-key 2-Step Verification for Partners

Option B is correct because an SSO profile is assigned per organizational unit (or group), so assigning it only to Staff sends those users to the third-party provider while Partners, with no profile, keeps signing in with Google credentials. Options A, C and D assign the profile to the root OU, which the contractors inherit, so they would be forced to the provider where they have no accounts; session length and 2-Step Verification do not exempt anyone from SSO.

A help desk team must reset passwords for users in the Retail Stores organizational unit only. The team must not be able to create or delete users or change attributes of anyone else. Which assignment meets this in the Admin console?
  • A. Assign the pre-built Help Desk Admin role to the team's group, scoped to the whole domain
  • B. Assign the pre-built User Management Admin role to the team's group, scoped to the Retail Stores organizational unit
  • C. Assign the pre-built Groups Admin role to the team's group, scoped to the Retail Stores organizational unit
  • D. Assign the pre-built Help Desk Admin role to the team's group, scoped to the Retail Stores organizational unit Correct answer

Option D is correct because the pre-built Help Desk Admin role grants password reset and basic user viewing and, scoped to the Retail Stores organizational unit, applies only to users there. Option A scopes it to the whole domain, which is more than needed. Options B and C use roles that either allow creating and deleting users or manage groups rather than resetting passwords.

Securing communications and establishing boundary protection

Your company is adding a Cloud Armor rule that denies requests matching a preconfigured cross-site scripting signature to the backend service for production checkout. Before it affects any customer, the security team wants to see which requests the rule would block. What should you do?
  • A. Give the rule a higher priority number than the existing allow rules
  • B. Attach the rule to a staging backend service and replay checkout traffic
  • C. Set the rule action to throttle with a conservative request rate limit
  • D. Turn on preview mode for the rule and review the logged matches Correct answer

Option D is correct because preview mode logs the requests a Cloud Armor rule would have matched without enforcing the action, so the team can review the logged matches before turning the rule on. Option A changes evaluation order rather than showing impact, option B tests on a different backend with replayed traffic that may not represent production, and option C turns the rule into rate limiting instead of a deny.

A web application behind a global external Application Load Balancer is protected by a Cloud Armor policy that uses the preconfigured SQL injection rule set at sensitivity level 2. Cloud Logging shows that one signature in that set blocks legitimate search requests, and the log entry names the rule ID. The security team wants every other signature to stay as strict as it is today. What should the engineer do?
  • A. Opt the logged rule ID out of the preconfigured expression and keep sensitivity at level 2 Correct answer
  • B. Move the rule to preview mode and keep it there until the application code is changed
  • C. Lower the sensitivity level of the preconfigured expression to 1 for the entire rule set
  • D. Add a higher-priority allow rule that matches the search path and skips WAF evaluation

Option A is correct because Cloud Armor lets you exclude individual signature IDs from a preconfigured expression, so only the signature that blocks legitimate searches is disabled and the rest stay at sensitivity level 2. Option C weakens every signature in the set, option B leaves the rule non-enforcing, and option D bypasses WAF evaluation for the search path altogether.

A media company runs its subscriber login on a global external Application Load Balancer with a Cloud Armor policy. Logs show repeated credential-stuffing attempts from Tor exit nodes, and the security team does not want to maintain the address list by hand. Which Cloud Armor configuration should the engineer add?
  • A. A deny rule with a custom expression that matches the Tor Browser user agent string
  • B. A deny rule whose expression evaluates the Google-maintained named IP list of Tor exit nodes Correct answer
  • C. A deny rule using the preconfigured scanner detection expression at sensitivity 1
  • D. A rate-based ban rule keyed on client IP with a low request threshold

Option B is correct because Cloud Armor provides Google-maintained named IP lists, including one for Tor exit nodes, that you can reference in a rule expression and that Google keeps current. Option A matches a user agent that attackers can change or omit, option C targets scanners rather than Tor exit addresses, and option D rate-limits all clients by IP without identifying Tor traffic.

An organization puts a third-party CDN in front of its global external Application Load Balancer. Cloud Armor deny rules for visitor IP ranges never match, because every request appears to come from CDN addresses. The CDN overwrites the True-Client-IP header with the visitor's address on every request, while clients can add their own X-Forwarded-For values that the CDN passes through unchanged. What should the security engineer configure?
  • A. Set True-Client-IP as a user IP request header in the policy so rules see the visitor address Correct answer
  • B. Add the CDN's published address ranges to an allow rule at the highest priority
  • C. Set X-Forwarded-For as a user IP request header in the policy so rules see the visitor address
  • D. Replace the deny rules with a rate-based ban rule keyed on the connecting IP address

Option A is correct because Cloud Armor can be told to read the client address from a user IP request header, and True-Client-IP is overwritten by the CDN on every request, so it is trustworthy. Option C uses X-Forwarded-For, which clients can pre-populate and the CDN passes through unchanged, so it can be spoofed. Option B allows CDN ranges, which never reveals the visitor address, and option D keys on the connecting CDN address.

Ensuring data protection

A claims team scans paper receipts into PNG files and stores them in a Cloud Storage bucket. Reviewers outside the finance group must be able to open the images, but the credit card numbers printed on the receipts must not be visible. What should the security engineer do?
  • A. Inspect the images with Sensitive Data Protection and move the flagged files to a restricted bucket
  • B. Apply character masking to CREDIT_CARD_NUMBER findings with a Sensitive Data Protection de-identification job
  • C. Redact CREDIT_CARD_NUMBER findings from the images with Sensitive Data Protection image redaction Correct answer
  • D. Encrypt the bucket with a customer-managed key and give reviewers the decrypter role

Option C is correct because Sensitive Data Protection image redaction detects text such as CREDIT_CARD_NUMBER inside images and returns a copy with those regions blocked out, so reviewers can still open the receipts. Option A only moves flagged files and leaves reviewers without the images, option B masks characters in structured or text content rather than in image pixels, and option D encrypts the data without hiding what is printed on the receipt.

Customer uploads of about 40 TB sit in a Cloud Storage bucket that receives new files every day. A Sensitive Data Protection inspection job runs each night and rescans the whole bucket, which takes hours and raises the monthly bill. How should the engineer cut the scan size without missing newly added files?
  • A. Schedule the scan as a job trigger with the timespan configuration populated automatically Correct answer
  • B. Set the job to sample 10 percent of each file's bytes and keep the nightly schedule
  • C. Run one inspection job per top-level folder in parallel and aggregate the findings in BigQuery
  • D. Add a lifecycle rule that moves each object to a separate bucket after its first scan

Option A is correct because a job trigger can populate the timespan configuration automatically, so each run inspects only objects created or modified since the previous run while new files are still covered. Option B samples part of each file and can miss sensitive data, option C still rescans all 40 TB, and option D adds object moves that do not limit what the job reads.

The security team suspects that developers paste API keys into environment variables of Cloud Run services in dozens of projects. They want continuous detection across the organization, without reviewing each service by hand, with results in the tool the SOC already watches. What should they do?
  • A. Turn on Sensitive Data Protection discovery for Cloud Run environment variables and review Security Command Center findings Correct answer
  • B. Run a Sensitive Data Protection inspection job in each project against exported Cloud Run revision manifests
  • C. Export Cloud Asset Inventory metadata for Cloud Run services to BigQuery and query the environment variable names for key-like patterns every week
  • D. Enable Data Access audit logs for Secret Manager across the organization and alert on unusual secret reads

Option A is correct because Sensitive Data Protection discovery can scan Cloud Run environment variables continuously across an organization and publish findings to Security Command Center, which the SOC already uses. Option B needs a manual job per project on exported manifests, option C only matches variable names rather than values, and option D watches secret reads, which does not detect keys pasted into environment variables.

A retailer is preparing a customer-feedback export for an outside analytics firm. The privacy officer requires that nobody, including the retailer's own staff, can ever recover the original email addresses and phone numbers from the shared file. Which two transformations in the Sensitive Data Protection de-identification template satisfy this? (Choose two)
  • A. Replace each detected value with the name of its infoType, such as [EMAIL_ADDRESS] Correct answer
  • B. Redact each detected email address and phone number from the exported text Correct answer
  • C. Replace each detected value with a surrogate-annotated token so it can be located again during re-identification
  • D. Encrypt each detected value with format-preserving encryption under a Cloud KMS-wrapped key
  • E. Replace each detected value with a deterministic encryption token under a Cloud KMS-wrapped key

Options A and B are correct because replacing a value with its infoType name and redacting it both discard the original value, so nobody can recover it from the shared file. Options C, D and E are reversible: surrogate-annotated tokens are made to be located and re-identified, and format-preserving or deterministic encryption under a Cloud KMS key can be decrypted by anyone who holds that key, including the retailer's own staff.

Managing operations

During a production incident, an on-call engineer must deploy a hotfix image to a GKE cluster that enforces Binary Authorization, before the CI pipeline can attest the image. The security team requires that the bypass is explicit for that single deployment and reviewable afterwards. What should the engineer do?
  • A. Set the policy's enforcement mode to dry-run on the cluster for the length of the incident
  • B. Add the hotfix image path to the policy's allowlist of exempt image patterns until the incident is closed
  • C. Add the break-glass annotation to the Pod so it is admitted and the override is logged for later review Correct answer
  • D. Sign the hotfix image manually with the pipeline attestor's key so the policy admits the deployment

Option C is correct because the break-glass annotation on the Pod lets Binary Authorization admit that one workload and writes an audit log entry, so the bypass is explicit, limited to that deployment and reviewable afterwards. Options A and B weaken the policy for the whole cluster or for every use of the image path, and Option D falsifies the CI attestation by signing outside the pipeline, so it is not an explicit, auditable exception.

A financial services firm builds Java services with libraries pulled from Maven Central. A new rule says third-party packages must come from a source that Google has built, scanned and signed. What is the lowest-effort way to meet the rule for the libraries that are available?
  • A. Run on-demand scanning on each built artifact and fail the build when critical vulnerabilities are found
  • B. Sign every downloaded JAR with a Cloud KMS key in a build step and verify the signature at deploy time
  • C. Resolve the covered libraries from Assured Open Source Software through its Artifact Registry repository Correct answer
  • D. Create an Artifact Registry remote repository for Maven Central and enable vulnerability scanning on it

Option C is correct because Assured Open Source Software serves Java packages that Google has built from source, scanned and signed, so using its Artifact Registry repository meets the rule with no extra build steps. Options A and D only scan packages that still come from Maven Central, and Option B adds your own signature, which proves nothing about where Google built the package.

Binary Authorization is enforced on a company's GKE clusters. The security team has just tightened the policy to require a vulnerability-scan attestation, but existing Pods keep running. Auditors ask how the company will learn which running Pods no longer comply, and the Pods cannot be restarted. What should the team configure?
  • A. Run Artifact Analysis on-demand scans on the images in running Pods and compare the results with the policy
  • B. Switch the policy to dry-run mode and review the audit log entries for the deployments it would have blocked
  • C. Enable continuous validation in the policy so running Pods are checked periodically and violations are logged Correct answer
  • D. Restart every Deployment so the admission controller evaluates each image against the new policy

Option C is correct because continuous validation in the Binary Authorization policy periodically checks running Pods against the current policy and logs violations, without restarting anything. Option A is a manual comparison that does not evaluate the policy's attestation requirement, Option B only covers new deployments, and Option D requires restarts, which the scenario rules out.

A company runs production workloads on GKE clusters that use Binary Authorization, and the project's policy already requires attestations from the company's CI attestor. A vendor now ships a monitoring agent image signed with cosign and publishes its public key. The security team must verify the vendor's signature each time the agent is admitted, without issuing its own attestations for it, and wants the cluster checks defined in a GKE platform policy. Which two actions should the security engineer take? (Choose two)
  • A. Add the vendor's registry path to the allowlist of images that the policy exempts from all checks
  • B. Turn on continuous validation in the platform policy so that Pods running the vendor image are rechecked periodically
  • C. Create an attestor, import the vendor's cosign public key into it, and require that attestor in the project's default admission rule
  • D. Add a Sigstore signature check holding the vendor's public key to a check set scoped to the agent's namespace Correct answer
  • E. Bind the platform policy to each cluster by setting the cluster's Binary Authorization evaluation mode to policy bindings together with project singleton policy enforcement Correct answer

Options D and E are correct. A Sigstore signature check with the vendor's public key in a check set scoped to the agent's namespace verifies the cosign signature on every admission without the team issuing attestations, and a platform policy only takes effect on clusters whose evaluation mode includes policy bindings; using the mode that combines policy bindings with project singleton policy enforcement keeps the project's CI attestation requirement in force. Option A would exempt the vendor image from every check, option B rechecks running Pods but does not verify at admission, and option C relies on attestors, which means issuing attestations.

Supporting compliance requirements

A national health insurer must show its regulator that encryption keys are held, and support is delivered, by a locally owned operator rather than by Google staff, while it still uses managed Google Cloud services. Which approach meets this?
  • A. Create an Assured Workloads folder with the EU Data Boundary and Support control package and protect the data with Cloud HSM keys in the matching region
  • B. Adopt a Sovereign Controls by Partners offering in which the local partner operates the controls, holds the keys in its external key manager and provides in-country support Correct answer
  • C. Enable Access Approval and Access Transparency on the insurer's organization and have its security group approve every Google support access request
  • D. Import the insurer's own key material into Cloud KMS keys in the national region and disable the key versions when the regulator asks for proof

Option B is correct because a sovereign-controls-by-partners offering lets a locally owned partner operate the controls, hold the keys in its own external key manager and provide in-country support, which is what the regulator asks for. Option A (Assured Workloads EU Data Boundary and Support) limits support to EU-based Google personnel but they are still Google staff. Option C gives approval over Google access but not local operation or key custody, and option D keeps the keys inside Google's Cloud KMS.

A defense supplier uses Access Approval on its production folder. Its auditors ask for evidence that each approval Google acted on was issued by the supplier and was not altered. What should the security engineer configure?
  • A. An asymmetric Cloud KMS signing key in the Access Approval settings, so every approval is signed with a key the supplier controls Correct answer
  • B. Data Access audit logs for the Access Approval API, so each approver's decision is recorded in Cloud Audit Logs with the approver's identity
  • C. Cloud EKM keys protected by Key Access Justifications, so Google must state a justification before each use of the keys
  • D. A Pub/Sub notification topic in the Access Approval settings, so each approval request and decision is mirrored to the supplier's SIEM

Option A is correct because Access Approval can sign each approval with a customer-controlled asymmetric Cloud KMS key, which gives the auditors verifiable proof that the approval came from the supplier and was not altered. Option B records who decided but does not provide a tamper-evident signature on the approval itself. Option C controls key use justifications, not Access Approval requests, and option D only mirrors notifications to a SIEM.

A holding company keeps its European and Singapore subsidiaries' projects in one shared folder. Projects move between subsidiaries during reorganizations, and the folder hierarchy must not change. The folder's gcp.resourceLocations policy allows only in:eu-locations, which blocks the Singapore teams. Each project carries a resource tag with the value eu or sg, and eu projects must stay in the EU. Which change meets both needs?
  • A. Add conditional rules to the folder policy that match the entity tag, allowing in:eu-locations for eu projects and the asia-southeast1 locations for sg projects Correct answer
  • B. Create a child folder for the Singapore teams with a policy that replaces the inherited one with the Singapore locations, and move the sg-tagged projects into it
  • C. Allow both location groups in the folder policy and attach an IAM deny policy to the eu-tagged projects that blocks resource creation outside the EU regions
  • D. Allow both in:eu-locations and in:asia-southeast1-locations in the folder policy, and alert on eu-tagged resources found outside the EU through a Cloud Asset Inventory feed

Option A is correct because organization policy rules can be conditional on resource tags, so one folder policy can allow in:eu-locations for eu-tagged projects and the Singapore locations for sg-tagged projects, and a retagged project follows the right rule without moving. Option B changes the folder hierarchy, which the stem forbids. Options C and D leave the folder policy permissive for eu projects, so the EU restriction is not preventively enforced (D only detects violations after the fact).

A retailer's checkout service writes customers' email addresses into the jsonPayload of its application logs. The logs sit in a user-defined log bucket with 400-day retention, and the bucket's other log entries must stay available for the full 90 days. After a GDPR erasure request, the DPO rules that these logs may be kept for no more than 90 days and that new entries must stop identifying customers directly. Which two actions satisfy the DPO? (Choose two)
  • A. Delete the requesting customer's entries one by one with the Logging API, leaving the rest of the bucket untouched
  • B. Delete the checkout service's log with the logs.delete method so that stored entries holding email addresses are removed
  • C. Add an exclusion filter for the requesting customer's email address to the _Default sink
  • D. Have the service log a pseudonymous customer ID in place of the email address Correct answer
  • E. Set the log bucket's retention period to 90 days Correct answer

Options D and E are correct. Logging a pseudonymous ID stops new entries from identifying the customer directly, and setting the bucket's retention to 90 days makes every stored entry, including those holding email addresses, expire within the DPO's limit while the bucket's other entries stay for the full 90 days. Option A is not possible because the Logging API cannot delete individual entries. Option B (logs.delete) removes the whole log, which destroys entries that must remain. Option C only filters future routing and does not touch stored entries.

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